antman said:Because if the Bible is such an incredibly important text (which it indisputably is) then it's important to know who wrote it, when and why.
I guess the crux of my argument is less about the scholarship of the bible (textual/higher/lower/whatever) and more to do with the perception of the Bible as an integrated work with precise knowledge of authorship. Christians tend to accept the Bible uncritically and are very reticent to admit that it is a fragmented, translated, disputed text pieced together over many centuries, translated and retranslated by literally hundreds of different people with different theological agendas.
What is the actual evidence that the higher critics are going on to divide up the Bible? From my readings is is simply stylistic differences and/or word use. Basically where there is a different style, the higher critic supposes a different author. They then suppose 'redactors' have cut and pasted and editorialised the texts into their current form at a later date. None of these people are known, but they are definitely not the people whom it is claimed wrote the text (either by internal evidence or tradition).
Now I think there might be many different explanations for stylistic differences. Perhaps the authors were skilled enough to use different styles for different purposes. Perhaps multiple scribes with unique styles were involved with the production of some books. Perhaps different parts of certain books were written by the authors in different times of life. Some of the books were definitely redacted and added to after the death of the author (eg Deutoronomy). Some books like Luke are the result of considering multiple souces by it's own admission (Luke 1: 1-4) and it also states there were multiple gospel accounts around in his time. Other books like Genesis are almost definitely the result of redacting earlier accounts.
So if there are other reasonable explanations for stylistic differences, why to skeptics believe rather in a century spanning conspiricy theory involving persons unknown for purposes unknown? Surely Occam's razor applies.